Submitted by Guestaaaaaaa (not verified) on Sun, 03/15/2009 - 6:26am.
I thought the law read that if you contributed in any way toward the end resulting in your own death, the other party couldn't be held responsible. Isn't this the reason given when drug dealers are not held responsible for others' deaths? Which brings me to my next question. Isn't the sale of heroin considered a felony? Please, somebody clear this up.
I thought the law read that