for a moment to educate educate a poor serf like myself, perhaps you could explain how "No taxpayer money is spent at all!" If the production company has no tax liability, and NC gives them 18% in cash for their expenses, how is it no taxpayer money is spent?
In order for that to happen, the taxes collected from ancillary businesses directly linked to the production would have to exceed, or at least equal the 18% payout from the state.
To date, I have seen exactly zero numbers to support either position. Perhaps you could provide some elucidation of a substantive empirical (not conjectural) nature to support your position.
This would be a golden opportunity for you to help the rest of us poor "uneducated" slobs.
(Of course, a "no response" or a "conjectual response" from you would possibly undermine your elitist post, so let's see some real numbers.)
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